AIBE 19 (XIX) 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key & Solutions

Q1. In which case was a registered society held to be an "authority" for the purpose of Article 12?

Options:
(A) Som Prakash vs. Union of India
(B) Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib
(C) Sukhdev vs. Bhagatram
(D) R.D. Shetty vs. International Airport Authority

✅ Answer: (B) Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib

The Supreme Court stated that if a society is under the deep and pervasive control of the State, it will be considered a "State" under Article 12.

Q2. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that fundamental rights cannot be waived?

Options:
(A) Gopala vs. State of Madras
(B) Kameshwar Singh vs. State of Bihar
(C) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(D) Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner

✅ Answer: (D) Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner

Fundamental rights are part of public policy and cannot be waived.

Q3. By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?

Options:
(A) 81st
(B) 91st
(C) 77th
(D) 85th

✅ Answer: (A) 81st Constitutional Amendment

Q4. Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?

(i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of Delhi.
(ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for reservation of seats for women in the House of People.
(iii) It adds Article 334A stating that the amendment will commence after the first census taken after commencement.
(iv) The above shall cease to have effect after 15 years.

Options:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) All of these

✅ Answer: (C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Q5. The Parliament enacts the “Fair Housing Act, 2024", which includes the following provisions:

(1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender.
(2) Section 6: Imposes a penalty of ₹ 10,000 for discrimination.
(3) Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years. 

A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme  Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law.
What principle did the court apply in this decision?
(A) Doctrine of Eclipse
(B) Doctrine of Severability
(C) Doctrine of Basic Structure
(D) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation

✅ Answer: (B) Doctrine of Severability

Q6. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the:

Options:
(A) Governor
(B) Committee on Public Undertakings
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Public Accounts Committee

✅ Answer: (A) Governor

Under Article 151(2), the CAG report is submitted to the Governor.

Q7. Which Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?

Options:
(A) Article 119
(B) Article 111
(C) Article 129
(D) Article 135

✅ Answer: (C) Article 129

The Supreme Court is a court of record and possesses contempt powers.

Q8. Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?

Options:
(A) Article 107
(B) Article 105
(C) Article 108
(D) Article 102

✅ Answer: (B) Article 105

Q9. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?

Options:
(A) 99th
(B) 100th
(C) 101st
(D) 102nd

✅ Answer: (C) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act

The constitutional framework of the GST came from this amendment.

Q10. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?

Options:
(A) Either House of Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Only Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha

✅ Answer: (A) Either House of Parliament

According to Article 61, the impeachment process can be initiated in either House of Parliament.

Q11. Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be “Criminal Force”:

Options:
(A) When it is used unintentionally.
(B) When intentionally uses force only.
(C) When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or annoyance.
(D) When it is used in self-defence.

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: Criminal force requires intentional use of force without consent, resulting in injury, fear, or annoyance to another person.

Q12. According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document resembling a currency note or bank note under Section 182(1)?

Options:
(A) One hundred rupees
(B) Five hundred rupees
(C) Three hundred rupees
(D) One thousand rupees

✅ Answer: (C) Three hundred rupees

Q13. According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to causing death in which offences?

(1) Robbery
(2) House-breaking after sunset
(3) Theft, mischief or house trespass

Options:
(A) (1) only
(B) (1) and (3) both
(C) (1) and (2) both
(D) (1), (2) and (3)

✅ Answer: (D) (1), (2) and (3) both

Q14. Rajesh strikes Sunil with an iron rod causing fracture of arm. Which offence is committed?

Options:
(A) Simple hurt under Section 323 IPC
(B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 IPC
(C) Voluntarily causing hurt under Section 324 IPC
(D) Attempt to commit culpable homicide under Section 308 IPC

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Fracture is classified as grievous hurt, and voluntarily causing it attracts Section 325 IPC.

Q15. Amit attacks Vijay with a knife knowing it is likely to cause death, but without intent to murder. Vijay dies.

Options:
(A) Murder under Section 302 IPC
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 IPC
(C) Causing death by negligence under Section 304A IPC
(D) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 IPC

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Absence of intention to murder but presence of knowledge makes it culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

Q16. Amit and Rani break into a house at night intending theft but flee before stealing anything. Which offence is committed?

Options:
(A) Attempt to commit theft
(B) House trespass with intent to commit theft
(C) Attempt to commit robbery
(D) Burglary

✅ Answer: (B) House trespass with intent to commit theft
Reason: House-trespass by night with intent to commit theft constitutes burglary, even if theft is not completed.

Q17. Punishment for rape where the victim is below 16 or 12 years of age is provided under which section of BNS?

Options:
(A) 64
(B) 65
(C) 63
(D) 72

✅ Answer: (B) Section 65
Reason: Section 65 of BNS specifically deals with aggravated punishment for rape of minors.

Q18. A new offence of “Snatching” has been introduced by BNS. Which section defines it?

Options:
(A) 308
(B) 303
(C) 305
(D) 304

✅ Answer: (D) Section 304
Reason: Section 304 of BNS introduces and defines the offence of snatching.

Q19. When may a police officer arrest Raju without warrant?

Statements:
(1) Only if a non-cognizable offence is committed in presence
(2) On reasonable complaint and strong suspicion
(3) Only if he tries to escape
(4) To prevent inducement, threat or promise to witnesses

Options:
(A) (1) and (3)
(B) (2) and (4)
(C) Only (4)
(D) Only (2)

✅ Answer: (B) (2) and (4)
Reason: Police may arrest without warrant on reasonable suspicion and to prevent interference with witnesses.

Q20. BNSS introduced FIR registration irrespective of jurisdiction. This FIR is known as:

Options:
(A) NCR
(B) Zero FIR
(C) False FIR
(D) Counter FIR

✅ Answer: (B) Zero FIR
Reason: Zero FIR allows registration of cognizable offences regardless of the place of occurrence.

Q21. The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit crime scenes for offences punishable with imprisonment for at least ___ years.

Options:
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 5

✅ Answer: (C) 7
Reason: BNSS makes forensic investigation mandatory for serious offences punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more.

Q22. Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?

Options:
(A) 251
(B) 349
(C) 356
(D) 366

✅ Answer: (C) 356
Reason: Section 356 BNSS provides for conducting trials in absentia against proclaimed offenders.

Q23. Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?

Options:
(A) 532
(B) 330
(C) 430
(D) 530

✅ Answer: (D) 530
Reason: Section 530 BNSS enables electronic mode for trials and judicial proceedings.

Q24. Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

Options:
(A) 531
(B) 101
(C) 2
(D) 1

✅ Answer: (A) 531
Reason: Section 531 of BNSS formally repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

Q25. Which section mandates the State Government to prepare and notify a witness protection scheme?

Options:
(A) 98
(B) 198
(C) 298
(D) 398

✅ Answer: (D) 398

Q26. Which section of BNSS mandates appointment of a designated police officer to provide information about arrested persons to the public?

Options:
(A) 25
(B) 35
(C) 37
(D) 45

✅ Answer: (C) 37
Reason: Section 37 BNSS ensures transparency by requiring appointment of designated officers for public information.

Q27. Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?

Options:
(A) 74
(B) 76
(C) 84
(D) 86

✅ Answer: (D) 86
Reason: Section 86 BNSS deals with attachment and forfeiture of property of proclaimed offenders abroad.

Q28. Which section of BNSS places restrictions on adjournment of trials to ensure expeditious resolution?

Options:
(A) 146
(B) 246
(C) 346
(D) 356

✅ Answer: (D) 346

Q29. A suit is pending in District Court A and transfer is sought due to alleged bias. Who decides the transfer?

Options:
(A) District Court A
(B) High Court or Supreme Court
(C) Civil Judge of District Court B
(D) Committee of advocates

✅ Answer: (B) High Court or Supreme Court
Reason: Transfer of cases on grounds like bias is decided by the High Court or the Supreme Court.

Q30. Court allows addition of a third party as defendant against plaintiff’s objection. Which CPC principle applies?

Options:
(A) Order 1 Rule 10 – Joinder and Substitution of Parties
(B) Order 7 Rule 11 – Rejection of Plaint
(C) Order 5 – Service of Summons
(D) Order 6 Rule 17 – Amendment of Pleadings

✅ Answer: (A) Order 1 Rule 10
Reason: Order 1 Rule 10 CPC allows the court to add necessary or proper parties to a suit.

Q31. Which section of the CPC allows for an appeal from original decrees?

Options:
(A) Section 96
(B) Section 100
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 104

✅ Answer: (A) Section 96
Reason: Section 96 CPC provides the right to appeal from original decrees passed by a court exercising original jurisdiction.

Q32. Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?

Options:
(A) 30 Days
(B) 60 Days
(C) 120 Days
(D) 90 Days

✅ Answer: (C) 120 Days
Reason: As per Order VIII Rule 1 CPC, the outer limit for filing a written statement is 120 days, after which the right is forfeited.

Q33. Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and Governors from personal appearance in court?

Options:
(A) Section 132
(B) Section 133
(C) Section 128
(D) Section 130

✅ Answer: (B) Section 133
Reason: Section 133 CPC grants exemption to the President and Governors from personal appearance in court proceedings.

Q34. What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under CPC?

Options:
(A) Res Judicata
(B) Reference
(C) Review
(D) Transfer of suits

✅ Answer: (D) Transfer of suits
Reason: CPC expressly provides for transfer of suits under its procedural framework.

Q35. Under which Order of the CPC is the procedure for summary suits provided?

Options:
(A) Order XXXV
(B) Order XXXVII
(C) Order XXXIV
(D) Order XXXVI

✅ Answer: (B) Order XXXVII
Reason: Order 37 CPC lays down a special summary procedure for suits based on negotiable instruments and written contracts.

Q36. Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of res judicata?

Options:
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 9

✅ Answer: (A) Section 11
Reason: Section 11 CPC embodies the doctrine of res judicata, barring re-litigation of decided matters.

Q37. _____ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.

Options:
(A) Section 88
(B) Section 89
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 86

✅ Answer: (A) Section 88
Reason: Section 88 CPC deals with interpleader suits where rival claimants dispute entitlement.

Q38. Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?

Options:
(A) Section 35
(B) Section 35A
(C) Section 35B
(D) Section 36

✅ Answer: (B) Section 35A
Reason: Section 35A CPC empowers courts to award compensatory costs for false or vexatious claims.

Q39. Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?

Options:
(A) Inducement
(B) Coercion
(C) Threat
(D) Promise

✅ Answer: (C) Coercion

Q40. Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in:

Options:
(A) Section 12 of the BSA, 2023
(B) Section 13 of the BSA, 2023
(C) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023
(D) Section 15 of the BSA, 2023

✅ Answer: (B) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023

Q41. In a criminal trial, stolen laptop recovered with accused’s fingerprints. How should the court treat this evidence under BSA, 2023?

Options:
(A) Conclusive proof of guilt
(B) Circumstantial evidence to be considered with other evidence
(C) Inadmissible without search warrant
(D) Must be verified by two forensic experts

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Recovery and fingerprints constitute circumstantial evidence and must be assessed along with other facts to establish guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

Q42. Where a document is executed in several parts (printing, photography, video recording, electronic record), BSA 2023 classifies each part as:

Options:
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Circumstantial evidence
(D) Scientific evidence

✅ Answer: (A) Primary evidence
Reason: Each part of such execution forms original evidence and is treated as primary evidence.

Q43. Which section of BSA provides that courts shall not require communications between Ministers and the President of India?

Options:
(A) 65
(B) 165
(C) 268
(D) 168

✅ Answer: (D) 165

Q44. According to Section 46 of BSA, when is character evidence relevant in civil cases?

Options:
(A) Always relevant
(B) Only when related to other relevant fact
(C) Never relevant
(D) Only in criminal cases

✅ Answer: (B) only when related to other fact

Q45. As per Section 78(2) of BSA 2023, presumption regarding officer signing a document is:

Options:
(A) Signature presumed forged
(B) Officer did not hold official character
(C) Officer held official character claimed
(D) Authenticity independent of official character

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: Law presumes that the officer signing or certifying held the official position claimed at that time.

Q46. Under Section 146 of BSA 2023, when are leading questions permissible?

Options:
(A) Always in examination-in-chief
(B) Never in cross-examination
(C) Allowed everywhere without objection
(D) Allowed in cross-examination and for introductory or undisputed matters

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: Leading questions are allowed during cross-examination and in limited situations like introductory or undisputed facts.

Q47. Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?

Options:
(A) Mediator imposes binding decision
(B) Neutral third party facilitates negotiation
(C) Mediator acts as judge
(D) Always court-ordered

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Mediation involves a neutral facilitator who helps parties reach a mutually acceptable settlement.

Q48. Parties fail to agree on appointment of arbitrator. Which provision applies?

Options:
(A) Court appoints arbitrator under Section 11
(B) Arbitration fails
(C) ICA appoints arbitrator in all cases
(D) Parties must opt for conciliation

✅ Answer: (A)
Reason: Section 11 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 empowers courts to appoint an arbitrator when parties fail to agree.

Q49. Which is not an advantage of ADR?

Options:
(A) Faster than litigation
(B) Confidential
(C) Always results in binding decision
(D) Less expensive

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: ADR processes like mediation and conciliation do not always result in binding decisions.

Q50. Which provision governs enforcement of arbitral awards?

Options:
(A) Section 34
(B) Section 36
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 11

✅ Answer: (B) Section 36
Reason: Section 36 provides that an arbitral award is enforceable as a decree unless stayed or set aside.

Q51. Which sections discuss “sapinda relationship” under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

Options:
(A) Sections 3(f)(i), 5(v)
(B) Sections 3(f)(i), 5(iv)
(C) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to Section 3(g), 5(iv)
(D) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to Section 3(g), 5(v)

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: Sapinda relationship is defined under Section 3(f)(i) & (ii) with explanation to Section 3(g), and marriage within sapinda relationship is prohibited under Section 5(v).

Q52. Under Section 15 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a divorced person may remarry:

Options:
(A) After one year from decree
(B) After six months from decree
(C) Immediately thereafter as a matter of right
(D) None of these

✅ Answer: (C)

Q53. Aarti seeks divorce on grounds of cruelty under Section 13(1)(ia) of Hindu Marriage Act. Which statement is true?

Options:
(A) Divorce only on adultery
(B) Divorce possible on mental or physical cruelty
(C) Cruelty not recognised
(D) Cruelty must be intentional

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Mental or physical cruelty is a valid ground for divorce; intention is not mandatory to be proved.

Q54. On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?

Options:
(A) Local customs
(B) Smritis
(C) Shrutis
(D) Mitakshara

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: Where Dayabhaga is silent, Mitakshara law is applied.

Q55. In custody matters under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890, what is the primary consideration?

Options:
(A) Financial stability
(B) Gender of child
(C) Welfare of the child
(D) Automatic custody to wealthier parent

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: The welfare and best interest of the child is the paramount consideration.

Q56. Match the following:

a. Spoken words
b. Deepika vs. CAT
c. Silence
d. Aas Kaur vs. Kartar Singh
e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI

Options:
(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-vi
(B) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-vi
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-vi

✅ Answer: (C)

Q57. A Muslim woman seeks maintenance after divorce. Which statement is correct?

Options:
(A) No maintenance after remarriage
(B) Maintenance only for three months
(C) Maintenance during iddat and for children until self-supporting
(D) Maintenance indefinitely

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: Muslim law allows maintenance during iddat period and for children until they become self-supporting.

Q58. The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given under which section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

Options:
(A) Section 13
(B) Section 11
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 9

✅ Answer: (D) Section 9
Reason: Section 9 provides for restitution of conjugal rights.

Q59. Which case involved a prison inmate’s letter that pioneered Public Interest Litigation?

Options:
(A) Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar
(B) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration
(C) Mukti Morcha vs. Union of India
(D) Narasimha Rao case

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: In Sunil Batra, a prisoner’s letter led to judicial intervention and expansion of PIL.

Q60. Which view was upheld by the Supreme Court in the bonded labour stone quarry case near Delhi?

Options:
(A) Free legal aid is only DPSP
(B) Only compensation without systemic reform
(C) Right against forced labour is a fundamental right under Article 21
(D) Only government agencies can file petitions

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: The Court recognised freedom from forced labour as part of the right to life and human dignity under Article 21.

Q61. Read the statements and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases.
Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.

Options:
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both statements are false

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: In PILs, courts play an active role and PILs are meant to address public or collective rights, not individual disputes.

Q62. Assertion (A): The concept of locus standi is relaxed in PIL cases.

Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves.

Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

✅ Answer: (A)
Reason: PIL expands access to justice by relaxing locus standi, allowing public-spirited individuals to represent disadvantaged groups.

Q63. Which of the following best defines delegated legislation?

Options:
(A) Legislation passed by local governments
(B) Laws enacted by Parliament or Legislature
(C) Laws made by an administrative authority under powers given by Parliament
(D) Judicial decisions by administrative tribunals

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: Delegated legislation is law-making by administrative authorities under powers delegated by the legislature.

Q64. Panchayat representative exercised delegated power during Covid and restricted economic activity. Which case applies?

Options:
(A) MCD vs. Birla Cotton Mills
(B) Patna University vs. Amita Tiwari
(C) Jalan Trading vs. Union of India
(D) None of these

✅ Answer: (A)

Q65. Which of the following is/are not grounds for judicial review of administrative action?

(1) Illegality
(2) Irrationality
(3) Proportionality
(4) Public opinion

Options:
(A) Only (2)
(B) (2) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (4)

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: Public opinion is not a recognised ground for judicial review.

Q66. What does “conflict of interest” refer to in professional ethics?

Options:
(A) Legal disputes
(B) Disagreement between professionals
(C) Conflict between ethics and law
(D) Personal interests conflicting with professional duties

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: Conflict of interest arises when personal interests interfere with professional obligations.

Q67. An advocate accepts bribe, delays case, and harms client’s interest. What does this amount to?

Options:
(A) Violation of Bar Council of India Rules
(B) Only an offence under Prevention of Corruption Act
(C) Criminal conspiracy under BNS
(D) Contempt of Court

✅ Answer: (A)
Reason: Accepting bribe and acting against client’s interest violates professional ethics under BCI Rules.

Q68. Nature of proceedings in cases of professional misconduct is:

(1) Criminal
(2) Neither civil nor criminal
(3) Quasi-criminal
(4) Civil

Options:
(A) (1) and (4)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) (1), (3) and (4)

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: Disciplinary proceedings are quasi-criminal in nature.

Q69. Which of the following is/are not procedural safeguards?

(1) Acting fraudulently
(2) Peer review
(3) Non-disclosure of prior association
(4) Non-disclosure of conflict of interest

Options:
(A) (3) and (4)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (4)
(D) (2) and (4)

✅ Answer: (B)

Q70. As per Section 2(84), “Share” includes:

(1) Debentures
(2) Preference shares
(3) Stocks
(4) Bonds

Options:
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (1), (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

✅ Answer: (C)

Q71. Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for:

Options:
(A) Issue of shares at premium
(B) Kinds of share capital
(C) Buy back of shares
(D) Reduction in share capital

✅ Answer: (B) Kinds of share capital
Reason: Section 43 classifies share capital into equity share capital and preference share capital.

Q72. A company discharges untreated industrial waste into a river. Which provision is violated?

Options:
(A) Section 24 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(B) Section 40 of the Water Act, 1974
(C) No violation
(D) Section 23 of the Water Act, 1974

✅ Answer: (A)
Reason: Section 24 prohibits the use of any stream or well for disposal of polluting matter.

Q73. Which Act is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?

Options:
(A) Water Act, 1974
(B) Air Act, 1981
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 provides wide powers to protect and improve the environment and overrides other environmental laws.

Q74. Which are included under the definition of “Intermediary” under Section 2(1)(w) of the IT Act, 2000?

(1) Cyber Cafes
(2) Telecom Regulators
(3) Social Media Platforms
(4) Internet Service Providers

Options:
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (1), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (4)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Intermediaries include cyber cafes, social media platforms, and ISPs, but not telecom regulators.

Q75. A website is hacked and customer data is stolen. Which option is correct?

Options:
(A) Punishable under Section 66 IT Act only
(B) Punishable only under criminal laws
(C) Punishable under Section 66 IT Act and compensation may be claimed
(D) No legal remedy under IT Act

✅ Answer: (C)
Reason: Section 66 IT Act provides punishment for computer-related offences and affected users may claim compensation.

Q76. Who are included under the definition of “employer” under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

(1) Occupier of factory
(2) Contractor
(3) Manager of factory
(4) Managing Director of factory

Options:
(A) (4) only
(B) (1), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (4)
(D) (1), (2) and (3)

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: Employer includes occupier, contractor, and manager responsible for control of the establishment.

Q77. Which legislations are included under the Social Security Code, 2020?

(1) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(2) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(3) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(4) Employment Exchanges Act, 1959

Options:
(A) Only (3)
(B) (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (4)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

✅ Answer: (C)

Q78. Which has not been set up under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

Options:
(A) Industrial Tribunals
(B) Environmental Tribunals
(C) Labour Courts
(D) National Tribunal

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Environmental Tribunals are established under environmental laws, not the Industrial Disputes Act.

Q79. Workers terminated for misconduct after enquiry. Can they claim retrenchment compensation?

Options:
(A) Termination is not retrenchment
(B) It amounts to lay-off
(C) It amounts to retrenchment
(D) Termination violated ID Act

✅ Answer: (A)
Reason: Termination due to misconduct after a domestic enquiry does not amount to retrenchment.

Q80. A banker refuses to honour a cheque despite sufficient balance, causing no loss. Which tort applies?

Options:
(A) Volenti non fit injuria
(B) Injuria sine damnum
(C) Damnum sine injuria
(D) Res ipsa loquitur

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: There is violation of a legal right without actual damage, which is injuria sine damnum.

Q81. Mr. B threatened Mr. A by surrounding him with workmen and threatening to break his neck if he did not leave the premises. Which tort can Mr. A file?

Options:
(A) False Imprisonment
(B) Assault
(C) Battery
(D) Hurt

✅ Answer: (B) Assault
Reason: Assault is the act of creating a reasonable apprehension of imminent harm. Physical contact is not necessary.

Q82. Ms. J knowingly travelled in a car driven by Mr. T who was under the influence of alcohol and met with an accident. Which defence can Mr. T claim?

Options:
(A) Volenti non fit injuria
(B) Act of God
(C) Inevitable Accident
(D) Act of Necessity

✅ Answer: (A) Volenti non fit injuria
Reason: Ms. J voluntarily accepted the risk by knowingly travelling with an intoxicated driver.

Q83. Noise and smoke from a newly built cotton mill caused loss to rooms let out by Mr. K. Which tort applies?

Options:
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Trespass to land
(C) Nuisance
(D) Negligence

✅ Answer: (C) Nuisance
Reason: Continuous interference with enjoyment of property due to noise and smoke constitutes nuisance.

Q84. Collision between two buses where one was on the wrong side and the other was driven rashly. Which tort applies?

Options:
(A) Private bus owner negligent
(B) Government bus owner negligent
(C) Inevitable accident
(D) Contributory negligence

✅ Answer: (D) Contributory negligence
Reason: Both parties contributed to the accident by their negligent conduct.

Q85. The term “Income” is defined under which provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961?

Options:
(A) Section 2(24)
(B) Section 2(40)
(C) Section 3
(D) Section 10E

✅ Answer: (A) Section 2(24)
Reason: Section 2(24) provides an inclusive definition of income.

Q86. Mr. X deposits ₹65,000 in a 5-year Post Office term deposit to claim deduction under Section 80C and does not opt for Section 115BAC. What is correct?

Options:
(A) Guilty of tax evasion/avoidance
(B) Not guilty of tax evasion/avoidance
(C) No deduction under Section 80C
(D) It is an unlawful act

✅ Answer: (B)
Reason: Investing in notified instruments under Section 80C is lawful tax planning, not tax evasion.

Q87. Statements regarding agricultural income:

Statement 1: Agricultural income is exempt under Section 10(1).
Statement 2: Partial integration applies when non-agricultural income exceeds exemption limit and agricultural income exceeds ₹5,000.

Options:
(A) Both incorrect
(B) Only Statement 1 true
(C) Only Statement 2 true
(D) Both statements true

✅ Answer: (D)
Reason: Both exemption and partial integration provisions are correctly stated.

Q88. Rent-free accommodation provided by employer is:

Options:
(A) Perquisite under Section 17(2)
(B) Perquisite under Section 16(2)
(C) Allowance under Section 10(13A)
(D) Allowance under Section 10(1)

✅ Answer: (A)
Reason: Rent-free accommodation is treated as a taxable perquisite under Section 17(2).

Q89. An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void under:

Options:
(A) Section 2(d)
(B) Section 2(e)
(C) Section 2(f)
(D) Section 2(g)

✅ Answer: (D) Section 2(g)
Reason: Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act defines a void agreement.

Q90. The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under which sections of the Contract Act?

Options:
(A) Sections 142–146
(B) Sections 142–144
(C) Sections 143–147
(D) Sections 140–143

✅ Answer: (B) Sections 142–144
Reason: These sections deal with invalid guarantees due to misrepresentation or concealment.

Q91. “A” seeks enforcement of a contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963. In which court should the suit be filed?

Options:
(A) Criminal court under BNSS, 2023
(B) Special court under Specific Relief Act
(C) Civil court under CPC, 1908
(D) No suit lies

✅ Answer: (C) Civil court under CPC, 1908
Reason: Enforcement of contracts and specific performance are civil remedies governed by CPC.

Q92. Transfer of land with a condition restraining transfer for 10 years amounts to:

Options:
(A) Conditional transfer
(B) Conditional limitation on transfer
(C) Subsequent transfer
(D) Condition precedent

✅ Answer: (B) Conditional limitation on transfer
Reason: Absolute restraint on alienation is treated as a condition limiting transfer under property law principles.

Q93. Cheque dishonoured due to insufficient funds. Within what time should complaint be filed?

Options:
(A) Three months
(B) One month
(C) Five months
(D) Two months

✅ Answer: (B) One month
Reason: Section 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act requires complaint within one month from cause of action.

Q94. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with:

Options:
(A) Rescission of contracts
(B) Cancellation of instruments
(C) Declaratory decrees
(D) Perpetual injunction

✅ Answer: (B) Cancellation of instruments
Reason: Section 31 provides remedy for cancellation of void or voidable instruments.

Q95. Recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced under:

Options:
(A) Specific Relief Act, 1963
(B) Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(C) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(D) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

✅ Answer: (D) 

Q96. Which section of Contract Act provides that a proposal may be revoked before acceptance is complete?

Options:
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 7

✅ Answer: (A) Section 5
Reason: Section 5 allows revocation of proposal before communication of acceptance is complete against the proposer.

Q97. Under the Land Acquisition Act, 2013, land may be acquired for:

(i) Strategic purpose
(ii) Projects for families affected by projects
(iii) PPP projects where ownership remains with government

Options:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (i) & (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) & (iii)

✅ Answer: (A) 

Q98. The Land Acquisition Act, 2013 replaced which earlier law?

Options:
(A) Land Acquisition Act, 1956
(B) Land Acquisition Act, 1862
(C) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
(D) Land Acquisition Act, 1874

✅ Answer: (C) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
Reason: The 2013 Act repealed and replaced the 1894 legislation.

Q99. Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for use of similar name and logo?

Options:
(A) Yes, if names are confusingly similar
(B) No, because names are different
(C) Yes, only if competitor is small
(D) No, infringement requires identical copying

✅ Answer: (A)
Reason: Trademark infringement is established when similarity causes likelihood of confusion.

Q100. What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?

Options:
(A) 50 years from creation
(B) 60 years from publication
(C) Life of author + 60 years
(D) 10 years from first sale

✅ Answer: (C) Life of author + 60 years
Reason: The Copyright Act provides protection for the lifetime of the author plus sixty years after death.